Why did the Spanish Inquisition ban Lazarillo de Tormes?
It was banned by the Inquisition because it was deemed to be anti-clerical. Any books that portrayed the Church in a negative way or seen as challenging It's authority were deemed to be works of the devil and as such, they were banned.
The spanish inquisition?
The Inquisition, in general, was created by the Church around the XV century because up to that moment what was considered sinful activities had been punished by the civil justice ( the king's ) and frequently the king's interests were involved in the case. Therefore, the Church created the tribunal known as the Inquisition to judge possible religious evildoers. Whenever something suspicious was denounced to the Inquisition, they would call the person for interrogation trying to determine his possible culpability or innocence. Basically, since today it seems illogical to do so, in the middle ages certain beliefs began to appear dangerous to the society, showing criminal activities like kidnapping babies for sacrifice, trying to eliminate the government by violent means, killing people. Activities that today would be considered as terrorists, enemies of the state. Something important: the Inquisition could not order the death penalty nor apply it. They could only apply religious penance. The king's justice took care of the evildoers and applied the penalty they deemed appropriate. By the way, there was also the Protestant Inquisition, which is seldom mentioned. They dictated the death penalty and the stake. Michael Servet, a Spanish doctor who discovered the blood circulation, was burned at the stake by John Calvin. King Henry VIII also burned, boiled, and killed people for similar reasons. In the XIX Juan Antonio Llorente, secretary of the archives of the Inquisition, burned part of the documents, and kept others to descredit the Inquisition. A famous case tried by the Inquisition, Galileo Galilei, has been twisted very frequently. The Church did not criticize Galileo's idea of the earth moving around the sun, but his supporting this theory on certain texts of the Bible, interpreting them arbitrarily, something that at the moment was not well seen We must remember that the Inquisition took care of offenses that nowadays are taken care of in civil courts. This increased the number of cases seen in the courts
What if the Spanish Inquisition never happened? Would Spain and Portugal become Muslim dominated nations?
Things in Portugal were a bit diferent.https://pt.wikipedia.org/wiki/In...Portuguese Reconquista ended in 1249, with the conquest of Faro. Inquisição started around 1530. Portuguese Inquisição acted mainly against jews and new christians (converted jews).In Portugal, jews had an important role in science and overseas expansion, occupied major positions in the state and had economical power. Thousands of spanish jews were received here after being expelled. The opposite was true for muslims, probably because after almost 300 years after Reconsquista ended, there were few muslims in Portugal. In 1500 the muslim population existed but wasn« not relevant, both in number and in power within society. So, even if there was no Inquisition, a muslim dominated Portugal was just not possible.Now, about the jews, things could be different if Inquisition never existed and if they were never persecuted and expelled from Portugal. This is because several authors make a link between the migration of the jews from Portugal to the North, mainly Netherlands and the decline of the Portuguese empire and role in world stage. They say since they had such an important role in society, when they left, there was several consequences:1. Portugal lost financial power and started to depend on European banks for financing, thus draining an important part of the riches won with expansion;2. Portugal lost most of its scientists, responsible for previous achievements in several important domains for expansion;3. All this knowledge about sea routes and ships was transferred to Netherlands, resulting in competition around the world, lost of domain in Indic ocean, invasion of Brasil and Angola, etc.For all these reasons, some authors point expelling the jews as the single worst mistake, with the worst consequences, in Portuguese History.I'll try to add sources somewhere in the near future.
Similarities between the Lutheran Reformation and the Italian Renaissance?
the similarites are easy. both were logic based. both were encouraging people to ask questions, to learn, to decide their own future. at this time period the catholic church was in nearly complete control of people day to day lives. they ruled with a very much "because i said so" personality. no questions or clarifications were accepted, and those that did were punished severly (the period of renaissance follows the spanish inquisition). martin luther and other began to question some of the practices of the church and local rulers. basically europe began to develop a more liberal and logical society. science began to get more acceptable, recall that the sun was the center of our solar system, but the church would kill anyone who voiced such a statement (galileo, capurnicus, da vinci,etc...) hope this little bit helps.
Why is English considered a Germanic language and not a Romance language?
Genetic descent is the convention for what "X-family language" means. Borrowing of cultural vocabulary is another phenomenon, and I'm not sure if there is a compact English term for it, though it is a frequent process in the history of the spread of major world civilizations, with Latin, Greek, Arabic, Persian, Sanskrit, Pali, and Chinese as frequent donors.I see the question asker is from Andhra Pradesh and I have seen a couple of Quora questions asking about this issue with Telugu, probably with a sociopolitical subtext, that Telugu's Sanskritized vocabulary is a claim to the Sanskrit heritage and legitimacy in terms of Indian history, in response to assertions that Hindi should be the national language for all.The social science field called linguistics, on the other hand, generally focuses on low culture rather than high, and on communities' everyday language not learned varieties. The dogma of "primacy of speech over writing" dismisses written language as merely derivative, not a phenomenon of its own as is most obvious in Chinese. "Language" is defined as a family of related local dialects that are mutually intelligible (a criterion that is almost impossible to decide in an unbiased way), not as a political entity's standardized language of education and business, which it labels with the slightly dismissive term "prestige dialect". Reconstructive comparative linguistics seeks to ascertain genetic relatedness between languages, with vocabulary borrowing viewed as noise that obscures the desired data. The assumed model of language group evolution is the "tree model" popularized by Indo-European language studies, where the daughter families scattered to widely separated parts of Eurasia and had relatively little subsequent contact. Linguistics classes mention alternative web-llke or wave-like models, but the tree model is still dominant even though many language groups other than Indo-European (e.g. Sino-Tibetan) are much more resistant to analysis by the tree model.You can see some of these different points of view applied to English and its French influences in the spirited comments discussion between linguist Thomas Wier and myself at Why wasn't English replaced by French during the Norman Conquest?