What is the philosophical word for the argument that if A=B and B=C, then A=C?
In math it is called the Transitive property. In philosophy it is called a syllogism. A syllogism, in general, is any deductive argument that contains 3 lines: 2 premises and 1 conclusion. There are many syllogisms, such as conditional, disjunctive, and implication. Aristotle started this basic form of logic. For your paper, you can just cite it as a deductive syllogism.
What are some of the best books regarding logic development and reasoning?
This book was a part of a coursea online MOOC as well Titled: think again how to reaon and aruge. provided by duke univertsy Page on coursera.org Intended for the first course in logic, this is an established text with proven strengths in its incorporation of the philosophy of language, analysis of arguments as they occur in ordinary language and of inductive arguments. the book should serve as an introduction to the basics of reasoning and logic as well as argument and argument fallacies like for example:-Ad hominem effect. -Appeals to authority.-the issue of relevance.The book walks through argument construction, argument evaluation and the language of arguments. I think the book is a must read for anyone who ever engaged in any kind of conversation with another human being.Twitter: @Fouad_khafagaGoogle +: khafagafouad@gmail.comblog: chaos-101.blogspot.com
Which logical fallacy is the most commonly committed?
The most common logical fallacy that one can observe in the world – and Quora – is the Anecdotal Evidence Fallacy.When you choose to establish the facts or state a theory to be true based on your life experiences, viz. anecdotes, it would be a classical form of flawed argument.No matter how experienced or old one can be, one person’s or multiple persons’ experience can never be considered verifiable evidence until and unless it is backed by scientific evidence, collected especially for the sake of analyzing a theory.Eg:My Grandfather lived to 97 and he used to be a smoker. So Smoking is healthy.I met with an accident in City A so driving there is dangerous.My neighbor is very religious and peaceful. So all religious people are peaceful.Watching many answers in Quora related to personal experiences and trying to apply them to an entire section is absolutely ridiculous and foolish.Thanks Chas Warren for the Edits !
Christianity is illogical, how?
Christianity does not teach that the Bible is true because the Bible says so. Christianity teaches that the Bible is the Word of God. Biblical innerancy is largely a matter of faith. It's not circular in that if you falsify the claims in the Bible, you show that it couldn't be the word of a flawless God. Lastly it's not accurate to say that Christianity is about faith but not facts, and science is all about the facts. First because as you noted there are truth claims in Christianity, such as Pilote oversaw Jesus trial, it's a fact that can be proven or disprove, not a matter of faith. And as archealogy showed us fifty years, ago a man named Pilote was in charge of that region at that time. Also evidence doesn't speak for it's self. Humans read the evidence and decide how it fits. Also science itself certain philisophical assumptions that it relies on just to continue. Such as that all of the world is an orderly place, that can be rationally categorized.
George Orwell (author), said, "All animals are equal, but some animals are more equal than others." What does that mean?
This quote is from novella called Animal Farm from George Orwell(Novelist, essayist, journalist, critic). You can read the book or watch it on YouTube(You can watch that quote written at 1:06:45).Pigs who control that animal farm initially makes 7 Commandments to maintain law and order. As they start gaining more control over animal farm, they completely take over it and misuse it for their own benefits.What this quote mean is that tough all animal are equal, but some have more privilege, power, advantage than others.Example: If we want to attending an audition then we all have to wait in a queue because we all are equal, but some of us(VIPs, spoiled brats, ones with influence, money) can easily skip the queue.[1]Hence, All animals are equal, but some animals are more equal(more privileged) than others.(which is totally wrong)Footnotes[1] All animals are equal, but some animals are more equal than others. By - George Orwell
Dy/dx, d/dx, what's going on there?
This is a little tricky. The dy represents infinitesimal change in y and dx represents infinitesimal change in x. If you recall, the derivative of f(x) is defined as the limit of [f(x+h) - f(x)] / [x+h - x] as h goes to zero. (Note the denominator becomes just h.) If you set y = f(x), then the numerator becomes a small change in y (dy) and the denominator is a small change in x (dx). In the first case, dy y² = dx 1/4 x², this is sloppy math and is what is called "abuse of notation". It is not technically valid in standard analysis, but it works and is simpler than using the limit arguments required to be formally correct. Where it comes in handy is that now you can integrate both side of the equation and then solve for y in terms of x. In the second case, d/dx is an operator which can be applied to any differentiable function. For example d/dx[f(x)] = df(x)/dx = f'(x). This notation becomes more important when dealing with multiple derivatives with respect to different variables. If f(x,y) is a function of x and y, then f'(x,y) is not defined, but we can write d/dx[f(x,y)] or d/dy[f(x,y)] or even both: d/dy(d/dx[f(x,y)]). You may deal with this later in your course. P.S. Good question. Glad to see questions on here that aren't people's homework verbatim.