Is It A True Sentence As Grammar

Which sentence is true?

Only D is true, I think. Gerunds always end in -ing, while there are not only participles that end in -ing, but those ending in -ed (or even those having irregular forms) as well. So, only D is true.

Is there an grammar error in this sentence?

Along with everything that's already been said, you need to be careful with where you place the word "only," as it really affects the meaning of the sentence. Look at these examples with follow up statements:

[1] True artists will only strive to impress themselves; they will not eat or sleep until they are satisfied with their own work.
[2] True artists will strive only to impress themselves; nothing else is worthy of much effort.
[3] True artists will strive to impress only themselves; the opinions of others are meaningless.

Sentence #1 says that artists don't do anything except strive to impress themselves.
Sentence #2 says that artists strive for only one thing, and that is to impress themselves.
Sentence #3 says that artists strive to impress only one person, and that person is them.

I think you want sentence 3.

Which Sentence is right ?? (Grammar)

the first sentence makes no sense.

the second sentence is the correct one because the parallelism around the conjunction "and" is maintained. in the second sentence, there are two clauses, each beginning with a gerund, like the first word of the sentence "winning." "winning" is a gerund created by taking the present participial form of the verb and treating it like a noun. thus, the words "winning" "playing" and "having" are all present participial forms of the verbs "to win" "to play" and "to have."

so break the sentence down as follows:

Winning has become more important than X and Y.

you want X and Y to have the same form, and you also want them to have the same form as the subject of the sentence - "winning" which itself is a gerund.

in the first sentence, X begins with "playing" and Y begins with "have" - two different forms of speech - a gerund and a present tense verb, first or second person (or an auxiliary verb, which doesn't fit here either).

in the second sentence, X begins with "playing" and Y begins with "having" - both gerunds (present participles of verbs acting as nouns in parallel clauses separated by "and.")

another slightly more concrete example:

Winning has become more important than playing fair and having fun.

that shows how the parallelism is maintained. there is a gerund (not a verb, but a verb tense acting as a noun) that begins each clause. any further question about this, check the sources below.

Are this sentences correct[I mean on grammar]?

nope both sentences are bad...


While Kevin's parents were trying to get an emergeny flight home, upon noticing that he was missing, Kevin was winning his battle with the thieves.

When Kevin returned home, he realized how hard it is to live alone and the value of family.


btw, is this from Home Alone? lol

Which sentence has correct grammar?

You are right. The second one is correct, while the first one is more common.

Why? Think of the question, 'How do you feel?' It is asking for an adverb to describe 'feel'. I answer, 'I feel badly.' Badly is an adverb, bad is not. You may also answer, 'I feel well.' Well is an adverb. Yet, how often do you hear people say, 'I feel well.' Instead of these, they say bad or good, both of which are adjectives used to describe nouns, but not verbs.

In the end, some say 'bad', but I prefer 'badly'.

Edit:
From http://dictionary.reference.com/browse/b...
Usage Note:
Bad is often used as an adverb in sentences such as The house was shaken up pretty bad or We need water bad. This usage is common in informal speech but is widely regarded as unacceptable in formal writing.

The adverb badly is often used after verbs such as feel, as in I felt badly about the whole affair. This usage bears analogy to the use of other adverbs with feel, such as strongly in We feel strongly about this issue. Some people prefer to maintain a distinction between feel badly and feel bad, restricting the former to emotional distress and using the latter to cover physical ailments; however, this distinction is not universally observed, so feel badly should be used in a context that makes its meaning clear.

Which is correct in this sentence? HELP w/ grammar!?

The first one is the right one. Plural is used (Smiths) because there's "the" there, indicating a family. And for a family, we always use plural with the family name, for example, The Simpsons, etc. Therefore, since the house belongs to the Smiths, you put the apostrophe at the end like the first. Hope could help!

Grammar: Which sentence is correct?

The present indicative takes an S in the third person singular (or TH in Biblical English).
The present subjunctive is distinguished by not taking any ending in the third person singular.
Using the subjunctive in the present tense in contemporary English may be "correct" according to traditional grammar, but it is mere pedantry in normal usage, outside a few fixed phrases such as "God save the Queen.".
Yes indeed you may use the subjunctive in your example if you be (subjunctive!) so inclined, but 90% of English speakers worldwide will fail to understand such an abstruse point of grammar and simply assume you can't spell.
The pedant would require us to wait until the bus come (subjunctive) since it has not come yet, and might never come. Most of us are more optimistic and prefer to wait until it comes (indicative), although that will not of course preclude us from being just as annoyed should it in fact not do so.

Farsi grammar help. Which sentence is correct?

" man pool be dast miyaram" is right. Because " be dast avardan " is a phrasal verb and you cannot separate them.

If you say the first one, people may understand what you mean but it is not grammatically correct and it doesn't convey the true meaning.