The -ion Words Are All ______ And The -tive Words Are All _______ Part Of Speech

Which one of this is correct: I had my lunch, I have had my lunch, I have ate my lunch?

If you want to mention the specific time when you had your lunch or you want to indicate how long ago you had it, you will use the simple past tense:I had lunch an hour ago.I had lunch at 1 o'clock.By the way, there is no need to say "my" since you cannot have anyone else's lunch. You can "have" only your own lunch, so "my" is unnecessary in English. (NOTE: "Have lunch" is not exactly the same as "eat [my] lunch." In the expression "have lunch" the word "lunch" refers to a kind of meal, that is, a midday meal. In "eat (my) lunch," the word "lunch" refers to the actual food that makes up the meal, that is, the sandwiches or whatever. That is why we do not use "my" with "have lunch" but we can use "my" with "eat lunch.")If you just want to say that your action of having lunch is completed and you don't want to say when it happened, or if you just finished having lunch, you will use the present perfect tense:I have (already) had lunch.I have had lunch (already)."I have ate my lunch" is grammatically incorrect. The correct grammar would be:I have eaten my lunch.By the way, in this case (as explained above) it is acceptable to use "my" since you can also eat part (or the whole) of another person's lunch (meaning "food"). If I secretly eat the food that you brought for your lunch, and you then discover that I have eaten it, you can say to me, at the moment of discovery: "You have eaten my lunch!"

If you lose your hearing, does your ability to speak deteriorate?

One of the most pernicious myths that have been perpetuated about Deaf people is that if you learn to sign, your speech skills (whatever they may be) will deteriorate.  I am Deaf, and was born that way.  My parents chose to teach me to speak orally, and I was one of the few for whom this method was successful.  I developed quite good speech, to the degree that many Hearing people, if they hear me talk, don't realize I'm Deaf (which is part of the problem and reason why I rarely choose to allow Hearing people to hear me talk, but that's off the point here). When I was 13 (I'm 50 now), I entered a school for the Deaf and began to learn American Sign Language.  My parents had been resistant to the idea of my attending a Deaf school, because they were afraid of that myth they had been told -- that learning to sign would cause my speech to deteriorate.  My speech did not. Some time in my 30's, I stopped wearing hearing aids -- effectively making me permanently (audiologically) Deaf, rather than just hard of hearing.  I have not had auditory feedback regarding my speech in that whole time.  But my kinetic memory remains, so I maintain the patterns I learned in order to produce speech. And today, my speech is still just as clear as it was when I was 13.  So, no, going Deaf does not mean you will necessarily lose your speech skills.  However, if this is a concern for you, you can go to a speech therapist who will work with you to help you maintain your spoken language abilities and teach you the patterns of producing speech so you can become consciously aware of what you are doing when you speak and how to make sure you are speaking correctly. Be warned, though... As I indicated earlier, being Deaf and speaking like a Hearing person has its own set of  pitfalls, as I have learned over the years.  There is nothing wrong with learning to sign, and indeed many advantages. And you CAN get along quite fine without speech, as many Deaf people will tell you.

Which is grammatically correct, "there is a book and a pen on the table" or "there are a book and a pen on the table"?

This is actually a really interesting question because it touches upon a feature of English.See, if you had flipped it around so the subject was a coordinate phrase, we wouldn't be in doubt at all."A book and a pen are lying on the table"and not"A book and a pen is lying on the table"If "book and a pen" had been a plural item like "pens", we also wouldn't be in doubt at all."There are pens on the table"and not"There is pens on the table"So the answer seems to somehow involve the coordination of singular items AND the position.The answer is, somewhat surprisingly for a lot of people, a feature called First Conjunct Agreement.It is barely ever relevant in English, because English verbs are lazy as heck. What seems to happen is that the verb is really lazy. It knows that "there" has no information at all. So it needs to reach forwards instead of checking where it usually checks (right before it). If it reaches something that's definitely plural, it says "Yep, plural". If it reaches a coordinate phrase where the first element is singular? It will in some languages have a tendency to say "Meh, good enough, let's just agree with the first guy."It's more obvious in other languages.