What was the native population of America before 1500?
If you are referring to the temperate zone of North America that eventually became the United States of America, then your most dependable estimates are from one million to four million individuals. There are speculative estimates that are much higher that are as dubious as estimates of he population of Atlantis.Upper limits of population estimates need to be measured against the archeological evidence and the carrying capacity of the technology available. We know for instance, that most of the tribal nations of temperate North America could raise corn, beans, and squash, but we also know that they could only farm small patches of land and were dependent on hunting game for protein, clothing, and tools. The tribes that the first Europeans met had no cultural memory of population densities comparable to Mexico or the Caribbean.Eurasian diseases began afflicting temperate North America soon after 1500. By the time English settlers were arriving in numbers in the 1630s the temperate zone population was about 300,000 to 500,000. It dropped to half of that by 1900 and has since rebounded to 3,000,000 to 5,000,000.
European nations?
THere were at least three European nations who established colonies in North America between 1500-1700. Name 3 European nations, and for each nation, describe: *Where the nation colonized in North America *The name of the colony * Why the colony was founded Explain two reasons why early settlers had a difficult time establishing successful colonies. Explain two ways Native Americans played an important role in helping European nations to establish successful colonies. Contact between the Europeans and Native Americans caused a number of things to happen. Descibe 4 of them
What factors led to the dramatic population growth of Europe between 1500 and 1700?
The really big population increase in Europe was in the late 18th and throughout19th century, rather than earlier. The German population actually declined significantly during the first half of the 17th century.
Was the conquest of america easier than africa in the 1400's?
The reason most historians have concluded in recent years is that the Native American populations, separated from contact with Eurasia for more than the previous 10,000 years, had no natural resistance to European diseases. Within a few years of the arrival of European conquisators and settlers, epidemic diseases (especially small box) quickly spread along trade networks in the Americas and killed millions of people. By the time Cortes reached Aztec Mexico and Pizarro reached Inca Peru, both of those regions had suffered terrible death tolls (the Inca ruler Atualhalpa only came to power because disease had killed off rival claimants in his royal dynasty). It has been estimated that between 1500-1700, the Native American populations of North and South America had declined by 50-95%--by tens of millions. Europeans did not know the 'germ theory' of disease at this time and had no actual control over or even accurate understanding of what caused diseases or how they spread. Many Europeans also died from disease, but because their ancestors had also suffered from these diseases there was some resistance in their gene pool and Europeans died in smaller numbers and lower rates than the Native American populations. By contrast, African populations possessed natural resistance to the same diseases faced by Europeans (due to trade, Africans had long enough encountered most European diseases). As a result, Europeans did not find Africa heavily depopulated by disease, like the Americas. Furthermore, the inland interior of Africa was home to many diseases that Europeans never faced before, and so Europeans colonialists and settlers in Africa often died in surprisingly large numbers. It was not until the development of germ theory and modern medicine in the 20th century that European empires were able to send large numbers of Europeans deep into African countries for sustained periods of time without suffering heavy losses to disease.
Why didn’t the Native Americans industrialize?
Industrialization is a complex socio-economic process which was introduced first in Europe in the 18th and 19th centuries. The requisite pre-conditions for an Industrial Revolution (technological, social, political and cultural) have been widely discussed.The two Native American cities (Cusco and Tenochtitlan), whose urban social structure might have supported such a major revolution, were conquered, indeed fully subjugated, by the Spanish well over 200 years before the earliest elements of industrialization began to appear in Britain. Furthermore, 18th century Spain, although fully capitalized by their imperial American adventures, most decidedly did not participate in the European Industrial Revolution. For an interesting look at cultural and intellectual factors at play in Spain in the 19th century, see Industrial Revolution in the Imagination of 19th-Century Spain.One might develop a ‘what if’ case for American development of a distinctively indigenous industrial revolution (had the Europeans stayed at home). Certainly, the Inka in Peru and the Triple Alliance (Nahua city-states) in Mexico would have formed the most likely sites for such a development.