Why were Spain and England so good at colonization, in comparison to the other European countries?
Three reasons.The first, and most important, is that they had the world's most developed and advanced navies at the time when Europe was first aware of the existence of the Americas. England and Spain had the resources to not only build lots of ships, but comparatively large ones as well. Other countries with well-developed commercial navies (I'm thinking of Holland and Italy specifically), either had pre-existing relationships with profitable trading partners (thus little reason to invest in exploration) or the wrong type of ship, ones that couldn't stand up for potentially stormy Atlantic crossings.The second factor was location. Both countries had unrestricted access to the wide open sea (unlike, say Italy, which was pretty much limited to the Mediterranean, or the Netherlands and Germany, which had to sail around the British Isles), so their ships could freely come and go with comparatively little interference.Finally, both England and Spain had the drive to colonize. At first, it was trying to outdo each other, but pretty soon they realized it could be commercially profitable. Spain also had the added religious zeal that brought the Catholic Church (an extremely important element in their society) to the colonies.I would also like to point out that Portugal was also a considerable presence in South America, especially in what is now Brazil, and that France had considerable holdings in the Caribbean. England and Spain, though were the more dominant political presence in Europe at the time, and had more territory in terms of land mass.
By the late 1800s European nations were eager to expand their empires into Africa in order to?
A. Gain valuable natural resources B. Help lower to cost of transportation C. Weaken The growing power of the United States D. Experiment with new form of government
Why did France and Britain let Germany violate the Treaty of Versailles after WWI?
There was very, very little appetite for war in France and Great Britain following the First World War. Although the First World War has generally been overshadowed by the Second World War in the public imagination, WWI was a massive conflict. The British lost roughly 890,000 soldiers, the French lost about 1.4 million soldiers - by contrast, the French saw 218,000 soldiers killed in WWII and the British lost 384,000. The fight also tore up massive sections of northern France, doing considerable damage to France's industrial capacity, to the point where at the end of WWI, the victory memorabilia sold in Paris had been made in Germany.Additionally, by the 1930's, the terms of the Versailles Treaty were increasingly coming under scrutiny. The hyperinflation of the Papiermark in the Weimar Republic had led to restructuring of the reparations payments, which opened the door to renegotiating other sections of Versailles.Having said that, in general, France did oppose the German violations of the treaty, albeit in pretty toothless ways. The remilitarization of the Rhineland caused a firestorm of protest from France and the French had initially not been of a mind to allow the German annexation of the Sudetenland. However, the French were not willing to engage in military operations without the backing of the British. In the case of the former incident, the British mostly thought it was perfectly acceptable for the German army to go anywhere in Germany it liked, in the case of the latter, the ethnic German majority in the Sudetenland made it seem like a matter of ethnic self-determination.It's also worth keeping in mind that France and the UK were still very much in the grips of the Great Depression at the time, and were more concerned with getting out of it than in what happened in central Europe. Voters in the two countries wanted jobs, not foreign policy exercises.Last, Nazi Germany was viewed as a potential bulwark against the expansion of communism from the Soviet Union. The West had backed the Whites in the Russian Civil War, and that was something of a high point for relations between the West and the Bolsheviks until Operation Barbarossa. The Soviet Union had proven to have expansionist goals - the Polish-Soviet War of 1919-1921 had done that - and the French and British wanted an ally for when the crap hit the fan. Germany was potentially a credible (edit) bulwark, so some leeway was given.
Why were Europeans eager to find a sea route to Asia in the 15th century?
Spice trade had to pass via Egypt, where its rulers, the Mamelukes, put the customs of spices at 4000%; something the Europeans found to be unbearable The Europeans, since Henry the Navigator, tried to find a sea route around Africa; reaching the Cape of Good Hope (now Cape Town, South Africa) under Bartholomew Diaz in 1487, then they succeeded in reaching India by sea via the Cape of Good Hope in 1498 under Vasco da Gama.
Why did these European countries want colonies in Latin America?
latin america has resources, weather conditions, and animals that Europe does not have. For example The inca have gold, and corn. Corn was new to Europe so europeans went to south america to exploit the resources. There were other resources like, potatoes, tobaco etc..Also, like england, countries like spain wanted thier own Empire and appear more powerful. There were other reasons, to spread religion. They did spread religion, but many of the indians living in south america were forced into the religion, They were made into slaves to work the land for the resources the europeans wanted. Indians usually gave in to the religion so that they could be given a day off, and so that they could have more rights and advantages than those that didn't convert. from bad era fan ( i lived in south america for 4 years)
Why do you think that many europeans favored communism after world war II?
When WWII was nearing it´s end, local minority communist parties seeked Russia´s support to establish communist governments in their countries. Russia was all too eager to force communism on all countries. Poland was a typical case. When Germany conquered their country in 1939 they created a government in exile in England with an underground representation in their capital Warsaw. When the Russians in their advance toward germany reached Poland, members of Polish government in exile eagerly contacted them thinking they woulds be respected. They were all taken to Moscow supposedly to see Stalin but the world never heard from them again. Later they did not recognize the Polish government in England, creating a puppet communist gevernment in Poland and secretly killing ex members of the Polish Resistance that had fought the germans because Russia knew that eventually they would confront the communist puppet regime Recently on CNN (2008) the current Polish Minister of War declared that communism had been forced on Poland after WWII in 1945 and that was the sole reason why Poland had entered the modern age in such miserable conditions. Only small communist minorities favored communism. Russia favored forcing communism. That´s why communist regimes don´t have free elections, no free press, and all have big police apparatus with jails full of political prisioners. If the mayority wanted it, there would be no need for this.