Why do most people in Latin America speak Spanish or Portuguese instead of the indigenous languages?
Cristoforo Colombo (Christopher Columbus) arrived to the Caribbean islands in 1492. He was sailing under a commission of the very fresh Spanish crown, to find an alternative route to India, China and Japan. His prize was being governor of the lands, and a part of the That was the reason why the inhabitants of the territories were called "indios".Short after Colombo's arrival, the Portuguese crown also made arrangements to explore the new territories. This provoked a conflict among Spain and Portugal regarding who was allowed to occupy and exploit the new lands. This escalated in diverse forms, until it was requested a decision to the Pope. It was Alexander VI who took a first decision on how to assign those territories to Spain and Portugal. As it wasn't satisfactory to Portugal, a series of later bulls, finished in the Treaty of Tordesillas, among both crowns. It divided non-christian world in two parts, using a meridian 370 leagues west from Cape Verde islands, in the Atlantic. Western of that line, all lands belonged to Spain. Eastern from that line, all lines belonged to Portugal.This drove to a development where territories in American continent were divided among both empires. You can see in the following map how were occupied those territories:In the Spanish colonies, Spanish was the official language. The same happened in the future Brazil with the Portuguese language. People were taught at school in the language of the colonial power. Indigenous languages were refused in the official and commerce use (as commerce was also regulated by the central powers). When the independence wars were finished, during 19th century, old colonial languages were what people had in common, after 400 years of colonial dominance.
Are there any former Spanish or Portuguese settler colonies that have enjoyed the same prosperity as former British ones?
This an interesting topic that has been approached from very different angles, from the factually rigorous to the ridiculous.There is not a simple answer, but historians and anthropologists have commented along these lines:Geography:The majority of the Spanish and Portuguese colonies were territories situated in the tropics, and/or high mountain ranges. The English colonies were mostly in the temperate climate zones, much more agriculturally friendly and better suited for massive transport.History:The English colonies were occupied by entire families, while, during the conquest (the settling periods) the Iberian invasions were military, mostly-male, enterprises. This difference had a big impact in the type of commitment the new invaders brought to the colonies.Culture:Both, the Spanish and Portuguese, went to Africa and America with an imperialistic attitudde right after they prevailed over Islam in their own countries. The priorities were gold, exploitation and forced conversion.In addition to that, the Catholic mindset didn’t have the entrepreneurial, capitalistic attitude so characteristic of the Protestant work ethic.There are other reasons, but those mentioned are significant, worth of been taken seriously.
The differences in colonization: British, French, Spanish, Portuguese?
What are the differences and similarities in the methods and goals of colonization by the following European countries: British, French, Dutch, Spanish, and Portuguese. How were their interactions with native populations, their repercussions within their own countries? How is colonialism linked to the development of capitalism and modern nation-state institutions and identities?
Why is Portuguese spoken in Brazil, while the rest of the continent speaks Spanish?
It had to do with how Spain and Portugal divided up the "New World". As the 2 super powers of exploration at the time, they anticipated new discoveries and decided before they were made how to claim new lands for their respective crowns. Brazil was given to Portugal and most of the rest of the "New World" went to Spain. This was the result of an agreement or treaty between the 2 countries.
Spain and Portugal tried to benefit from their colonies by doning what?
By exploiting the Indians and robbing the land of its natural resources,forcing Catholicism on them because in the Spaniard's eyes,they were savages.When they exterminated some of the tribes in the Carribbean,they brought in African salves to replace them.Fray Bartolome de las Casas was a well known defender of the Indians in Hispaniola,he didn't last too long either.The Spaniards could not exterminate the Aztecs,Mayans,and,Incas like they wanted to. The jungle was(and still is) deep,dark,and,dangerous. The Europeans just could not endure it.
Why are Latino's ..i.e South American Countries proud to be Spanish?
first of all, most people i know dont like to label themselves as "hispanic". most simply refer to themselves as mexican, puerto rican, cuban etc. some also use the term "latino" which specifically refers to people from the latin american region rather than to europe. as far as the language issue goes, you could also point out the fact that americans speak english despite the fact that most of us arent direct descendants of english colonists (i'm mexican american). also, the aztec, maya, and inca people that you specifically mentioned werent given a choice to speak spanish instead their indigenous languages, but were forced to due to the sudden and devastating fashion their traditional way of life was altered. although most people from latin america speak spanish, that doesnt mean that they embrace european customs while rejecting their own indigenous heritage. the majority of people from latin america today are either mestizo, mulato, indian, spanish, african or some combination of all of the above. their customs and traditions reflect that blending of cultures. most of their traditional music, food, clothing, and celebrations are entirely unique as a result of their unique history. theyre not simply an imitation of spanish customs. also, there are many indigenous groups that werent affected by the spanish conquest/colonization and still continue to speak their native languages and practice their native traditions.
Why did the american colonist leave england?
Depends which ones you are talking about. Some were sent by England just like the colonists that England sent to dozens of other countries. The Pilgrims went because they felt like the church of England was too lax and too similar to the Catholics. Hundreds of people were sent to the colonies because they had committed crimes and were not allowed in the motherland for a certain number of years. There were also Spanish colonies, French Colonies, Portuguese Colonies and so on, the English just drove a lot of them out. the English Colonists were not leaving so they could stop being Englishmen, they were leaving because they thought it was a good business idea for the most part.