How does one country win a disputed land from another country? Who gets to decide which part?
The traditional way of resolving border conflicts has been war, with the winning country taking what it wants or what it can get. This is the case with the war between Sudan and the new country of South Sudan. Borders are not yet fully established between the two contries, however, and battles continue as of today, in May, 2012.Border disputes are now primarily handled through arbitration and negotiation. It can be done bilaterally -- that is, between the two countries involved -- as has been done, for example, on the Saudi Arabia-Kuwait border. This essentially split, 50-50, the anomalous Neutral Zone that used to exist between them. It can be done internationally, with third-party governments called in to provide historic evidence and to act as arbitrator. This has been done on the Saudi Arabian-United Arab Emirate border, particularly concerning the Buraimi Oasis. This dispute was resolved by an international arbitration panel.http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Sou...http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Sau...http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Bur...
Why do Native Americans who fought each other for land think winning wars doesn't establish ownership?
1. One generation's treaties should not be binding on another's. Treaties should in my opinion only be binding from and to those that made them. 2. Who is to say the American Indians did not violate treaties among themselves? Why else all the wars among themselves? Wouldn't wars like this usually result from treaty violations? 3. I did not at all suggest they were all of one tribe at all. I do know they all were once from the orient. However certain tribes even annihilated others-large and small. Examples would be Incas and Anasazi tribes of Pueblo Indians-extinct even before whites arrived.
Why was Israel given the Palestinian land after World War 2?
It was Germany who caused all the genocide. When Germany was defeated, it was just for the Jews to get a land of their own. So why didn't the winning powers (US, Britain, Russia) give a part of Germany itself to the Jews? Why was the Palestinian land chosen to be given to Israel? What authority did the winning powers have to give somebody else's inhabited land to the Jews? I am totally for Jews getting a country of their own? But why not somewhere else or even a part of Germany? After all, the Jews were all-over. They were in Germany, Poland, Hungary, Russia, US, France, Belgium, Czech, Belgium. Why did they want only the Arab owned land on the Mediterranean?
A, B and C, in order, tossed a coin. The first one to toss a heads wins the game. What are the probabilities of winning?
when a coin is tossed there are two outcomes tail or head each has the probability of occurring =1/2let p be the probability of winning or getting head=1/2 and q=1-p(failure or getting tail)P(A winning)=P(getting head in first try)+P(getting head in 2nd try)+…………=p+q*q*q*p(three q’s because A,B,C all failed in their first try)+q^6 *p……=p(1+q^3+q^6+……..)similarlyP(B wining)=qp+q^4 *p+q^7……=qp(1+q^3+q^6+……..)P(C wining)=q^2 *p+q^5 *p+q^8 *p……..=q^2 *p(1+q^3+q^6+……..)1+q^3+(q^3)^2+(q^3)^…….is a geometric progression a=1, r=q^3so (1+q^3+q^6+……..)=1/(1-q^3) = 8/7 since q=1/2,p=1/2P(A winning)=p(1+q^3+q^6+……..)=(1/2)*(8/7)=4/7P(B winning)=qp(1+q^3+q^6+……..)=(1/4)*(8/7)=2/7P(C winning)=q^2 *p(1+q^3+q^6+……..)=(1/8)*(8/7)=1/7
Suppose that A tosses a coin which lands heads with probability pA, and B tosses one which lands heads with pr?
Suppose that A tosses a coin which lands heads with probability pA, and B tosses one which lands heads with probability pB. They toss their coins simultaneously over and over again, in a competition to see who gets the 1st head. The one to get the 1st head is the winner, except that a draw results if they get their 1st heads together. what is the distribution of the number of times A and B must toss? Find: P(A wins) P(B wins) P(Draw) the distribution of the number of times A and B must toss. I have no idea what to do... PLEASE HELP