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Is A Contract Still Legal If Somebody Else Signed The Document And It Was Not Him

If someone signs a contract (eg lease) but enters a coma or is declared mentally incompetent and committed..?

No he is not of legal mind and sole to care for the obligation, They may still attempt to get it filled, and may even try to get family to. They are not legally committed to pay it.

Signed simple document not done in front of a notary: Is it legally binding?

My ex-boyfriend had me sign a document saying I owed him $780 for various expenses during our relationship together, none of which he has legitimate proof for that I helped him expend. I realize that I was a complete idiot for signing this, but I didn't think it through properly. The document was signed by me and him with two other people in the room, but neither of them technically knew exactly what we were signing. Obviously, neither were a licensed notary public.

So my question: Is this document legally binding?

Is a contract still valid if someone signed by my name without my consent?

Only if that person did so on your behalf, as your agent, with your permission.If that person did it on your behalf, and had some reasonable grounds for believing you would ratify his ‘agency,’ then the contract would be valid if and when you ratified it.If your conduct misled the other person into believe that person had authority, a court might not allow you to subsequently deny that persons ‘apparent authority’ to sign on your behalf.You are otherwise not bound to a contract you have not consented too and which someone has fraudulently signed in your name. That persons conduct amounts to fraud and if he forged you signature also forgery.The language of your legal system might vary slightly from this answer,RegardsGavin

Is it legal to forge someone's signature with their consent?

Someone asking you to “sign on their behalf” is effectively asking you to represent them in doing a certain thing, which qualifies you as a mandated party. You basically have an unwritten contract in which it is stipulated that you sign for someone else, on their behalf.You would have to use your own signature, not theirs. This means that you’ve agreed that you sign on their behalf and that your signature on any relevant (..) document is the same as their signature on that document.If you’d however use their signature, that’s something else entirely, with or without their consent, should the signing be done in order to produce any sort of legal consequence whatsoever, such as in the situation of signing a check.One situation in which it’s most likely legal to use someone’s signature could be the following: you get commissioned to use someone’s signature as a wall decoration (do it over and over across a wall, for decorative purposes).This all varies with jurisdiction etc though I’m pretty sure on the basics.

If somebody takes narcotics for back pain,can they sign legal documents?

Of course it is.

A person cannot sign valid, legally binding documents when s/he is under the influence of drugs or alcohol. To be enforceable, legal documents have to be signed by someone who is competent to understand what s/he is signing. Generally, if you are not competent to drive you are not competent to sign a contract.

What will the legal status of an e-signed contract be, if the signee claims that his email (that was used to sign the contract) got hacked and someone else signed on his behalf?

Generally speaking, if a contract is not executed by both parties, that fact is relevant to mutual assent. Without mutual assent, there can be no valid contract. The contract might be able to be enforced against the individual who actually signed.THIS COMMUNICATION CREATES NO ATTORNEY CLIENT PRIVILEGE OR RELATIONSHIP BUT IS FOR INFORMATION PURPOSES ONLY!!!!!!!Shalom aleichem.

My name is misspelled on my employment contract, is the contract still a legal document?

No, b/c if your name is misspelled, technically it's not your name.

Can someone legally force someone else to sign a check written to both parties?

He can't. But you say he is going to court, so the court can. Without knowing ALL of the facts (and I find people rarely give all of the facts on these things), the court can indeed force her to sign it.

She should have sued him long ago. She needs to see a lawyer to see if it's too late. I'm not sure what he did wrong. If he was awarded something in the divorce, but she was required to pay the debt on it, that's not his fault that she was in bankruptcy.

She can't get half the check if she was not a victim of the illegal foreclosure, which she was not. She would have to file a separate claim and have a judgment against him for her to have a claim on the check.

You can't get a name off a mortgage unless the person can get a new loan. The bank/mortgage company will not do that. If he can't get a new mortgage, he did nothing wrong. There is no evidence that it caused her any harm. If she did a bankruptcy, that dead would have been dealt with at that time.

I think you need to back off and let her make the decisions. Realize that if he has to pay legal costs to get her to sign the check, he can force her to pay the legal fees as well. She should just sign the damn check and then sue him IF he did something wrong. But it sounds like years ago, so it's probably too late.

There are huge holes in your story.

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