My Muslim husband wants to divorce me as I refuse to wear sexy underwear in bed which is against Islam. What should I do?
Something is very wrong with your question.Because if you are a Muslim, you should know that wearing sexy for your husband, in the privacy of your bedroom, is something permissible and even encouraged. That’s like marriage in Islam 101 :)Prohibited Sex in Islam:There are no restrictions in your private marital life with your husband except for :- Anal Sex is prohibited at all time. Do not accept it no matter what.- Sex during your period time prohibited. Do not accept it no matter what.Other than these two prohibitions, feel free to go the extra mile to please your husband in the privacy of your bedroom. He is also encouraged to please you to the content of your heart.You both get immense reward for the halal fun time you share with each other.Remember the dua every time before you get intimate, it protect you both from shaytaan (Satan) in that time and it also protect your offspring resulting from that relationship. The dua translation is :Bismillah, O Allah, keep the shaytaan away from us (i.e protect us from Shaytaan) and keep the shaytaan away from what You bless us with (i.e protect kids you bless us with from Syahtaan).Get more education about marital life in Islam.Good luck.
Is it haram, if a wife did a striptease to her husband only?
Not At All !! husband and wife may do anything in the privacy of their room except sodomy !! if his wife doesnt want to do it, he should not force her to do !!
Is it halal to not live with ur husband........?
Wow your a married woman now, CONGRATULATIONS!! If your a married woman you have to live with ur husband. @Edit: Sister i hope everything works out for u insha'Allah. I will pray for you.
Is it halal for a women to divorce her husband if he marries another women?
Im just curious, because there has to be a valid reason for your marriage in order for it to be a halal divorce, ive read somewhere that if a women divorces her husband for no valid reason, then she wilk be cursed, The Prophet (peace be upon him) said [translation of meaning]: “Any woman who asks her husband for a divorce without justification will be forbidden from the scent of Paradise.” [Musnad Ahmad (5/382) and Sunan Abî Dâwûd (1/216)] but i dont think it says the same for men, they can divorce their wives any time they want because they have more at stake (money) then the wives do. Which is not true of todays marriages, where a women has much more at stake in a.marriage then a man, because if she divorces, she suddenly becomes taboo, and unmarriagable, and has to also take te burden of raising the kids all by herself, which is much worse then loosing a couple of bucks. Anyways, my question is, is divorcing your husband because hes marrying another woman a valid reason in islam? Or does she have no choice but to stay in that marriage (islamically) say this is because she is jealous of the new wife which is understandable lol BUT what if she wants to divorce him is not because of jealousy, but rather she knows hr husband and his personality well, and she knows, almost for a fact, that he would not treat her and the new wife fairly, and rather would make her into a slave, and flaunt around with his new young wife (she knows his intentions are not pure) is this divorce halal? So i want to know for both, is it halal to divorce because of jealousy, and is it hala to divorce becaue of the second reason. Salam alikum
Is it sex with wife from her back side is halal in islam?
Assalam o Alaikum and jazakallahu khairan for posting this question: I quote from islam-qa: Anal intercourse with one's wife is a major sin, whether it occurs at the time of menstruation or not. The Prophet SAWS (Peace & Blessings of Allah be upon Him) cursed the one who does this: "Cursed is the one who approaches his wife in her rectum" (Reported by Imaam Ahmad, 2/479; see also Saheeh al-Jaami', 5865). The Prophet SAWS (Peace & Blessings of Allah be upon Him) also said: "The one who has intercourse with a menstruating woman, or with a woman in her rectum, or who goes to a fortune-teller, has disbelieved in what was revealed to Muhammad." (Reported by al-Tirmidhi, no. 1/243; see also Saheeh al-Jaami', 5918). In spite of the fact that many wives of sound nature refuse this, there are some husbands who threaten their wives with divorce if they do not obey them (in this matter), and some even deceive their wives, who are too shy to ask scholars about it, into thinking that it is permissible. The Prophet SAWS (Peace & Blessings of Allah be upon Him) said that a man may approach his wife in any way he likes, from the front or the back, so long as intercourse takes place in the place from through which a child is born. There is no doubt that the rectum is the place from which waste matter is expelled, not the place from which a child is born. Another reason why some may commit this immoral act is that they enter upon what should be a clean married life with some jaahili (ignorant) traditions and odd practices, or with memories of scenes from indecent movies, for which they have not repented to Allaah. It is known that this act is forbidden even if both partners agree to it. Mutual consent to a haraam deed does not make it halaal. I ask Allah to bestow upon us a proper understanding of His religion and to make us adhere to its limits, for He is the All-Hearing, the One Who answers prayers. Islam Q&A Sheikh Muhammed Salih Al-Munajjid
Is oral and anal sex haram "sin" in Islam?
I wanted to know if it is a sin in Islam to have oral sex or anal sex because all my friends say it is a sin and I want to know for sure because i don't want to go to hell. LOL
How does a Muslim wife feel when her husband comes home with a new wife? They will be staying in the same house. The wife will likely have to move out of the master bedroom to make way for the junior wife.
It is absolutely an immoral phenomenon, but…This question refers to the correctness and validity of polygamy for men. If we accept that the polygamy is allowable for men (and not for women), we can answer to the so called wife that her husband has acted according to his and her religion. Thus, following Islamic doctrines, you, as a man, can have four wives, but women can just have one husband. The holy Qur’an states:وَإِنْ خِفْتُمْ أَلَّا تُقْسِطُوا فِي الْيَتَامَىٰ فَانكِحُوا مَا طَابَ لَكُم مِّنَ النِّسَاءِ مَثْنَىٰ وَثُلَاثَ وَرُبَاعَ ۖ“If you fear that you may not deal justly with the orphans, then marry [other] women that you like, two, three, or four…”سورة النساء/3But if the so called wife does not follow Islamic doctrines, she can refer to the law. In lots of countries, you have to follow monogamy. So she can start divorce proceedings.Polygamy for men is not specifically an Islamic rule. The prophet Ibrahim (pbuh) had two wives. The prophet Jacob (pbuh) had more than one wife. So it is a paraIslamic question. Thus, even Jews and Christians should answer the question.We have to consider this fact that according to the true religion of Islam, for men marrying more than one wife at the same time is under some conditions. One of which is that he must be fair to his wives. If he cannot be fair, he must marry to just one wife. The holy Qur’an states:فَإِنْ خِفْتُمْ أَلَّا تَعْدِلُوا فَوَاحِدَةً أَوْ مَا مَلَكَتْ أَيْمَانُكُمْ ۚ ذَٰلِكَ أَدْنَىٰ أَلَّا تَعُولُوا“… But if you fear that you may not treat them fairly, then [marry only] one, or [marry from among] your slave-women. That makes it likelier that you will not be unfair.”سورة النساء/3On the other hand, if a Muslim wife stipulates at the marriage ceremony that her husband must not marry another wife, he could not get married to another female.I should mention that it is absolutely immoral to bring another sexual partner home, even if that action was not against one’s faith. Islamic rules do not confine to jurisprudential ones. All Islamic rules do correspond with moral codes.
In islam can you really demand sex from female slaves whom were kidnapped?
With regard to questions 1 & 2 the women would remain as sex-slaves, they wouldn't be freed nor would they marry till they convert to Islam. She is not allowed to live as a free person in Muslim society if she is Buddhist or Hindu or even atheist: these people aren't allowed to pay the jizya tax. With regard to question 3, in all cases they have to wait till the woman has menstruated once. The menstruation proves (according to Islam) that she is old enough for sex (even if she is only nine) and proves she isn't pregnant from her (former) husband. Muslims believe having sex with children this young is moral because Muhammad consummated his marriage to Aisha when she was nine, and they define him as being perfect. They don't acknowledge any independent source of morality other than what Allah decrees. https://islamqa.info/en/12562 https://islamqa.info/en/13737 https://islamqa.info/en/21246 With regard to question 4, I don't see how the female slave could be regarded as having purposefully infected the Muslim man with an STD when she is forced to have sex. If she reveals she has an STD then she may not have any use as a slave, and then what will happen to her? It's up to the Muslim to get her medically checked before forcing her to have sex. She can always say afterwards that she didn't know she had it. With regards to question 5, slaves are captured as war booty, so it means the Muslims were waging war against kuffir, and they won. This situation is peaceful for the Muslims, not for the kuffir. That is what Muslims mean by "peace".