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When Does The Work-kinetic Energy Theorem Not Apply Help

Does the work-energy theorem apply when a speeding car puts on its brakes and comes to a stop?

Sure. The Work-Energy Theorem says that the work done to a system is transformed into kinetic energy. When you step on the gas pedal, the engine's work gives the car kinetic energy.

When you step on the brakes, the opposite happens. The brakes' friction removes kinetic energy from the car and transforms it into thermal energy (heat). It's still work, but in the opposite direction.

Kinetic energy and the work-kinetic energy theorem?

The artwork finished on an merchandise is an identical because the replace contained in the article's kinetic skill. contained concerning the falling merchandise, the artwork finished is the rigidity of gravity cases the area the article has fallen, or 2 kg * 9.80 one m/s^2 * 12 m, for a finished of 235.40 4 J. This artwork will enhance the article's kinetic skill through 235.40 4 J. because the article became initially table sure before being dropped (kinetic skill became 0), the completed kinetic skill of the article must be 235.40 4 J Plug that into the kinetic skill equation (KE = a million/2 m * v^2) and sparkling up for v: 235.40 4 J = a million/2 * 2 kg * v^2 v^2 = 235.40 4 m^2/s^2 v = 15.3 m/s

Work-Kinetic Energy Theorem?

work = force * distance = F*2.5 here
the particle accelerates ( assuming no other forces like friction) hence velocity increases

Why does the work-energy theorem not apply to non-constant forces?

The premise of your question is incorrect. The work-kinetic energy theorem most certainly DOES apply to non-constant forces. Perhaps you are in an algebra-based physics class in which it is challenging to deal with non-constant forces and the work due to them - but it is untrue that the W-KE theorem is limited to constant forces.An example to show this: Suppose we have a constant force that acts on an object as it undergoes a displacement delta x = d. If theta is the angle between the force applied and the x-direction, then we can get the work from a graph of F_x = F*cos(theta) vs. x as below. The work done, as the object is displaced by a displacement d, is Fcos(theta)*d. I’m sure this must be familiar. This is indicated by the top plot of the two shown. The AREA under the curve is the work done by the force. (and this work, if this F is the total NET force on the object, is equal to the area under the curve, or F*cos(theta)*d.If the force is NOT constant, then one can break up the displacement into little rectangular strips, each of which has an area of F(x)_avg*cos(theta)*dx Where dx is the width of the strip, and F(x)_avg is the average value of F(x) over that strip’s width dx, and cos(theta) again is the cosine of the angle between the force and the x-direction.The total work done (and thus the total kinetic energy change) is the area under THAT curve. If you’re in a calculus based class, you can take the functional form of F(x) and integrate it between the limits of the motion x_initial and x_final.There is no reason to argue that the W-KE theorem is not applicable to non-constant forces… it certainly is. There’s nothing special about the functional form of F… constant or not.

Examples of Applications Of work-Energy Theorem.?

The Work-Energy Theorem says that if you do work on an object, it gains energy. And if an object does work, it loses energy.

That energy is almost always kinetic energy (energy of motion). Later on, that kinetic energy can be converted to other forms of energy (like heat).

The formula: W = delta K

W = work
delta = change in (symbol is really a triangle)
K = kinetic energy

Easy example:

A tractor does 100 J of work pushing a cart on a smooth level surface (smooth implies no friction, level implies no gravitational potential energy change).

How much kinetic energy does the cart gain? It's 100 J.

Notice that the Theorem does NOT tell you how much kinetic energy the cart has, only how much it gained.

Some people write the Work-Energy Theorem using the formulas for work and kinetic energy:

Fd = 1/2mvf^2 - 1/2mvi^2 (where the force is parallel to the distance moved)

That way you can calculate more things, like the final speed vf if you know all other values.

Work energy theorem pls help!!!!!?

Work-energy theorem is just a small part of Conservation of Energy. It states that work done on an object in absence of any other force is equal to the change in its kinetic energy.
So, work done = change in kinetic energy (Only valid if the force doing the work is the only one acting on the object)

Yes, conservation of energy is valid every time.

By definition, conservative forces are the one that do zero work in closed loop of motion of the object. In simpler words, conservative forces "conserve" the work done against them by an external agent and when the agent retracts, they do the same amount of work on the object. Take gravity for instance. Suppose you lift a stone from the ground to a height h. You did mgh work to lift the stone. This work is done against gravity by your hands providing the force. As soon as you take your hand away, the stone falls h height because gravity will return the energy it took from the stone as kinetic energy.So, mgh = (1/2)mv^2
Mathematically, for a conservative force,
dU/dx = - F
U is the potential energy, x is distance, and F is the force applied.

In case of non-conservative forces, they always try to extract work from you. And once they get it, its lost forever as heat or something else. For example, friction, air drag, viscous drag etc.

Why does the work-energy theory ignores potential energy?

There are (at least) two ways of formulating the relationship between work and energy.Net work equals change in kinetic energy.This includes all forms of work, and doesn't give any forces special status. Any time one could say that some amount of potential energy was being converted into kinetic energy, the force associated with that potential energy (e.g., the force of gravity) is doing that same amount of work. So, everything turns out fine, without putting in a special term for potential energy.Net work done by non-conservative forces equals change in mechanical (i.e., kinetic + potential) energy.As mentioned above, whenever a conservative force does work, it's just converting potential energy into kinetic energy (or vice versa, for negative work). So, if we're interested in the total energy, not just the kinetic energy, we no longer have to care about the work done by conservative forces (like gravity).So, really, it's just a matter of convenience; unless the problem (or the teacher) specifically says otherwise, you can use either formulation of the work-energy theorem, and both will get you the same answer. Just be careful to remember which one you're using, so that you don't accidentally mix and match!

Does the work-energy theorem hold if friction acts on an object?

Yes. Friction just must be included in the "work". Remember, when friction acts, negative work is done on the object. Positive work is done as local heating at the surface interface.

Friction and human forces are non-conservative forces, meaning that the energy isn't tracked mathematically. Sure, you could trace the energy, and when studying the conduction of frictional heat, we do trace this energy. But frictional heat and chemical energy of human food aren't classified as "mechanical energy".

Forces like gravity, springs, and electrostatics are conservative forces, and each have an associated potential energy.

A better statement of the energy conservation is the following:
PE1_net + KE1 + W_nonconservative = PE2_net + KE2

If no net non-conservative forces act on the body, "mechanical energy" is conserved. "Mechanical energy" being the sum of all potential energy and kinetic energy.

A human force acting in the direction of motion of a body produces positive work. A human force acting against the direction of motion produces negative work. Friction also does negative work.

What is the work-energy theorem?

Okay, first of all I want to clear the misconception of work.In school days it is ‘taught’ to students(without ANY logical basis) that work is nothing but energy and is defined to be the ‘product’ of Force and displacement.So they define energy to be the capacity of doing work. This is a totally lame view of the world, which will later cause problems.The REAL meaning of work-energy principle is that work done implies change in energy.Let’s see what it means:For ANY physical process to take place, energy is required. No process can happen WITHOUT change in energy.A change in energy of the system(phenomenon of interest) shows that SOME physical process(may be chemical) has taken place. It may not be evident, but change has taken place. To find out WHAT, we need to study the system better.Here’s something very interesting:It has been observed that EVERY system tries to attain stability in this process. So, the system whose energy has been increased(by some external stimulus) tries to REDUCE this energy. It’s like a string- when you pull it, you ‘disturb’ it. The string just somehow wants to ‘get rid’ of this disturbance and so will try to move back.It also relates well to Newton’s Third Law: Every action has an equal and opposite reaction. It may not exactly have an EQUAL reaction(mathematics has not shown), but there IS reaction…

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